By Orion Karl Daley
I have a fundamental question for interpreting Amendment 10 with respect to Amendment 1 and wondering if your readers, or even a Constitutional expert or two, are willing to address this ?
Consider Amendment I - "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press, or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."
Consider Amendment 10: "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people. "
Question: Does the statement "powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution" in Amendment 10, mean that when "Congress shall make no law as stated in the context of Amendment I", that they are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people as in Amendment 10 ?
Thanks in advance,
Orion Karl Daley
for the Strategic Future of our nation
Author - The New Deal ISBN: 1419670948
Balanced Party http://unity2008.org
New York, NY, USA -